further reflections

I realized after finishing my previous post that there were two further extensions

1) Is that policy to be equally enforceable. Men, myself included, do have a sort of 99% consent implication. But there are exceptions, such as an undesired partner, or a particular timing issue. I'd have to wonder whether this would be the case to deal with an explicit consent issue considering it's pretty easy to assume a male would consent to a sex act (or could be seduced/induced into one if not).

2) Based on what I had read, the way the policy was enforced often used a mixed sentiment of explicit consent by achieving it DURING or even AFTER an overt sexual activity level. Which seems to realize that it wasn't a meaningful policy for enforcement purposes.